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Medical arrogance or what?

#1 by phil ( deleted ) , Mon Feb 13, 2012 12:59 pm

We have a case in todays Birmingham Mail about a young couple being reported to Social Services by a doctor. The couples child suffers from seizures and after suffering the latest attack they took him to Heartlands hospital where the usual procedure is that they check him over make sure he has suffered no ill effects and release him.

This time was different when doctors carried out a series off aggressive tests which included drugs that made the child vomit an induced coma and a lumbar puncture. When the parents objected and wanted to take the child home the doctor threatened them with the police and social services. Later the parents were investigated by the Social Services and cleared of any wrongdoing.

I think what we have is the usual case of medical arrogance where doctors think that we are all incapable of understanding anything medical. I'm sure all this doctor has to do was sit down with the parents before starting the tests and explain what was going to happen, and what possible side effects there could be. Explain that it would probably be distressing for the child, but in the end it was all for his own good. He could have told them that they could be there with the child throughout and anything they didn't understand would be explained to them.

But why should he do that, when he can just report them to the social services for getting in the way.

Phil

phil

RE: Medical arrogance or what?

#2 by Sheldonboy , Mon Feb 13, 2012 7:48 pm

Just Beggars belief Phil, this can't be unusual either.


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RE: Medical arrogance or what?

#3 by phil ( deleted ) , Mon Feb 13, 2012 8:30 pm

What I don't understand is would he have reported someone who refused medical help for their child on religious reasons?

Phil

phil

RE: Medical arrogance or what?

#4 by Sheldonboy , Mon Feb 13, 2012 8:50 pm

Yes if he had a "Witness" to the situation.


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RE: Medical arrogance or what?

#5 by lynne webb , Mon Feb 13, 2012 9:15 pm

If the parents wouldnt sign, then before they could do any treatment Social Services would have to be told and they would have to sign. My grandaughter couldnt have 2 teeth out because her aunt took her, not her Mom. so she couldnt sign, Hope this makes sense..

 
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RE: Medical arrogance or what?

#6 by phil ( deleted ) , Mon Feb 13, 2012 9:29 pm

Lynne

Yes you make perfect sense, obviously these parents must have signed for the treatment that the child received but as I said I very much doubt that he explained what it entailed.

Phil

phil

   

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